I don't doubt the statements, but without any reference for how they would respond to the same question "pre-pandemic" how are we supposed to draw any conclusions?
Did they ask men so that we could see at least a difference that we can compare with?
Could it be that women in tech are often partnered with men who also work in tech and, because of the above average total compensation packages offered at tech companies compared to other skilled industries, more dual tech households are considering transitioning to single income households?
Did they ask men so that we could see at least a difference that we can compare with?